Content Questions
What's the definition of a rest frame?
Rest frames are defined with respect to objects.
The rest frame of an object is the frame in which it's at rest.
You can also have two objects at rest with respect to each other;
the frame in which this is true is called their rest frame.
Is the rest frame arbitrary?
No, it's not arbitrary. For a given object, there is only one rest
frame: the one at rest with respect to the object. (Note that
there is no absolute rest frame: no object is special
and can be said to have ``the'' rest frame of the universe.)
What's the equational proof that the speed of light
is constant for all reference frames i.e. say one person
is traveling at
, the other standing. Why is
the same for
both?
Einstein's statement that ``the speed of light is constant for all
frames'' is not a proof- it's a postulate. It
happens that this postulate is valid for our universe, within all the
experimental precision we can muster. So you can consider Einstein's
postulates to be experimentally true statements about our
universe. As to ``why'' this is so: I don't think anyone really
knows, although the ideas do satisfy some aesthetic principles of
symmetry. In physics the game is to find the simplest, cleanest
description of nature that works.
How did the observer in Einstein's train ``see'' the light
from B first?
It is worth spending the time to think through this example carefully.
Both observers see flashes of light from each side of the train.
Observer O on the ground sees them both arriving at the same time.
Since he knows they come from A and B (due to the scorch marks on the
ground), and he knows he is equidistant from A and B, and he has
just read Einstein's paper so he knows that the speed of light is
always
, he can deduce that the lightning flashes hit A and
B simultaneously.
Observer O' in the center of the train boxcar also observes two
flashes of light. Because the train has moved to the right
while the light is traveling, the light flashes meet somewhere to the
left of O'. In the S' frame, when the photons meet, the light from B'
has already zipped by O', and the light from A' hasn't reached O' yet,
due to the motion of the train. So what O' actually sees is
a flash of light from B' first, then a flash of light from A'. O'
knows that the lightning hit A' and B' (due to the scorch marks) and
that she's equidistant from A' and B'. O' has also read Einstein's
paper, so O' knows that the speed of light is
in her frame,
because it's
in every inertial frame. So, since she saw the flash
of light from B' first, she concludes that the lightning hit B'
before it hit A'. In other words, the lightning strikes were
not simultaneous. Who's right? Both of them! Something
simultaneous in one frame may not be simultaneous in another.
Weird? Yes! But this is the consequence of assuming that the
speed of light is always
.
In Einstein's thought experiment, how does
see the
flash from
first, then from
? I was unclear about the position
of the light beams meeting.
See above question. Because the train is moving to the right,
the beams of light meet to the left of
. That means that
the beam from
sweeps by
before the beam from
has
reached
: so
sees the beam from
first.
For Einstein's train thought experiment,
sees the flash
from
first because
is moving towards it?
See also above few questions. I guess you could say that it's
because
is moving towards the source.
If the train had been moving
to the left,
would have seen the flash from
first.
In the first example with simultaneous lightning strikes, is it
proved only by the movement of light rays?
I'm not sure what you mean exactly. See above few questions.
The vital assumption in this example is that the speed of
light is always
, no matter what frame. Normally we assume
that time intervals which are the same
in one frame are the same in another (and that light would
have Galilean-ly added speeds in different frames): but if
we assume the speed of light is always the same, we
have to abandon the idea that time intervals between events are the
same.
In the lightning bolt example, what if the
the bolts are simultaneous in the train?
In this example we assumed that
saw the equidistant
flashes at the same time, and so the bolts were simultaneous on the
ground. If we assume instead they are simultaneous in the train, they
will not be simultaneous on the ground! It works
symmetrically: to the person on the train, it looks as if the ground
is moving. The analysis goes the same way: suppose
is at the
center of the train and sees the flashes arrive at the same time.
She's read Einstein's paper, so she concludes that because the ends of
the train are equidistant, the flashes must have been simultaneous.
The train moves to the right during the time the light is traveling.
So, the flashes will meet to the right of
. The light from
will arrive at
before the light from
. So, observer
, also
having read Einstein's paper and knowing that the speed of light is
always
, concludes that in his frame, the lightning bolt hit
first. The flashes are not simultaneous in
if they are
simultaneous in
.
How did you derive the moving cart expression for
?
First one imagines a light source, say a laser, sending light up
to a mirror which reflects it back, and we consider the interval
between when the light is emitted and when it returns. The
time interval in the cart frame (
) is
.
The events - emission and return- happen at the same place in
this frame.
Now consider the ground frame,
. The ground observer sees
light going up at an angle and down: see Fig. 2-5 in your text.
By using the Pythagorean theorem, we can write
. Solving for
in terms of the other quantities,
we get
, which
according to our definition of
is
.
What do you mean by events at
the same place?
Events at the same place have the same space coordinates
i.e. the events have the same
,
,
, although different times.
A proper time interval
between two events is one measured when the events are at the same
place.
How does it work if both observer and person in the train think
that the other has slower time?
If both observers go along forever in their respective IRFs, then each will, forever, see the other's clock's time as slower. That's all there is to it. However I suspect the source of your discomfort is along the lines of what's known as ``the twin paradox'', which we will likely be getting to soon. The ``paradox'' is this: suppose one twin goes on a long relativistic trip and comes back. Another twin stays home on Earth. If each one sees the other's clock as slow, symmetrically, will they both be the same age when they meet? If not, which one will be older?
The resolution to this ``paradox'' lies in realizing that the
symmetry holds only
so long as the two reference
frames are always moving at speed
with respect to each other;
in other words so long as they are inertial frames.
In the twin astronaut example, if one twin travels away
at some speed
and comes back, she must necessarily change reference frames,
and to do that she has to accelerate.
In the simplest case, she goes off in a straight line and comes back.
Then, even if she spends most of her time in an inertial
frame, at some point she has to turn around and change frames from one
moving with
to one moving with
: she must accelerate
at some time, invalidating the assumptions of special relativity.
This means that the symmetry need no longer apply. (The answer
is that the one that traveled will be younger.)
BTW, this can all be understood more naturally in the context of
general relativity (which treats non-inertial
reference frames). In GR, the shortest path in ``space-time''
is the one with the longest time interval. We probably won't
get to this material in this class, though.
If both clocks are moving slow from the opposite viewpoint, what
happens when they stop? Do the clocks match?
See above question. When one clock stops moving with respect to
the other, it's no longer in an inertial reference frame, and
the symmetry between the clocks is no longer valid. The difference
between the clock readings will depend on the particular path
one clock has taken with respect to the other.
Can you go over the length contraction again?
Consider a ruler at rest in
, with its ends at
and
.
Its proper length (the length in the frame in which it's at rest)
is
. Now imagine a train rolling by at speed
, in
frame
. You can imagine two events: first, a person in
the train touches one side of the ruler, and next, that person
touches the other side of the ruler;
the time interval between these events, in
the ruler frame
, is
, and the proper length is
.
By our time dilation result, the interval between
these same events in frame
is
. (In this case,
is the proper time, since the two events - the two
touchings of the ruler ends - happen in the same place in
.)
So the length
of the ruler in
is
, which is
. This is length contraction: the length
of a ruler moving with respect to you is shorter than the length
of the ruler in its rest frame.
Moving objects can't actually be shorter, given the
barn yard paradox. What's the difference between perceived and
real length?
They are indeed really shorter. The perceived and real
lengths are the same. We will see more later about how this can be
consistent with the ``barn yard paradox''; this is actually in your
homework set, cast in the form of a pole vaulter problem.
The scheme for measuring proper length that you presented is
somewhat confusing because the two events (moving observer passing one
end of ruler, moving observer passing right end of ruler) are not
simultaneous in either observer's frame. Generally, when
I want to measure the proper length between two events, I go
to a frame in which those two events are simultaneous. A better
scheme would be to have the stationary observer place synchronized
time-bombs at each end of the rule, then measure the time difference
between arrival of the wavefronts from the two explosions.
There is no need to use simultaneous events in order to
determine the relation between measured and proper length.
(Note that ``proper length between two events'' does not have exactly the
same meaning as the ``proper length of an object'': what I think you mean
by ``proper length between two events''
is the ``proper distance between two space-time events'', which
is indeed the space-time interval for which those events are
simultaneous.) Yes, if you explode simultaneous time bombs
at the ends of a rigid body, the interval between
those events will be the proper length
of that object. I don't see any simple way
to derive the
relation
with a setup like this (comparing time interval between when
light leaves the end, and when two beams meet in the two frames).
Note that the time dilation equation does not work for events which
are simultaneous in some frame: they can not happen in the same
place in any frame, so they do not have a proper time interval.
How has the length contraction been confirmed for the matter
itself beyond just our interaction with them?
I'm not sure what you mean by ``beyond just our interaction with them''
(we have to interact with matter to make measurements).
In particle and nuclear physics, relativistic effects
are part of everyday life, and effects are
very measurable, as for the study of
squished relativistic nuclei.
Can you post an example of when proper and prime are the
same and when they are not the same?
In today's time dilation
and length contraction examples, the proper time was in the cart (prime)
frame, and the proper length was in the ground (unprime) frame.
Prime and unprime are just arbitrary labels; you can label frames
as you like. The point I wanted to make with the warning was this:
never use prime and unprime as a guide to determining whether some
time interval is a proper time, or whether some length is a proper length.
In each case, consider the meaning of proper time and proper length.
The proper time is the interval for the frame in
which events happen in the same
place, and the proper length is the length in the frame in which the object
is at rest.
What is the way to use
/relativity in the Lagrangian/
Hamiltonian formulation?
We won't be getting to this in this course, but in general one requires
in a relativistic theory that
a Lagrangian be ``invariant under Lorentz transformation'', i.e.
that it leads to the same physics in any frame.
(We will be defining Lorentz transformations in a bit).
In what depth does this course cover relativity?
We have a few more lectures in which we will cover a few more
consequences of Einstein's postulates, plus treatment of momentum and
energy. We will get to the Lorentz transform, but not much further
(we won't do much in 4-vector notation). We will (probably) not cover
anything in general relativity in this course.
Speaking of muons, will we hear more about your research in
lecture?
Yes, probably. I work in neutrino physics.
Also you will hear about research from other professors
in the department over the course of the semester.